Answer:
No.
Step-by-step explanation:
According to the law of exponent:-
[tex] \displaystyle \large{( \frac{a}{b}) ^{m} = \frac{ {a}^{m} }{ {b}^{m} } }[/tex]
Therefore:-
[tex] \displaystyle \large{( \frac{a}{4} )^{5} = \frac{ {a}^{5} }{ {4}^{5} } }[/tex]
