Answer:
no it's equal to 3/2 because 2 negatives equal a positive number
hope this helps
have a good day :)
Step-by-step explanation:
No, it's not equivalent
[tex]-(\frac{3}{2} ) = 1\frac{1}{2\\}[/tex]
[tex]-\frac{3}{2} = -1\frac{1}{2}[/tex]
