Answer:
Option D
Step-by-step explanation:
We have to find the value of cot [tex](\frac{\pi}{2})[/tex]
Since cot θ = [tex]\frac{1}{tan\theta}[/tex]
and θ = [tex]\frac{\pi}{2}[/tex]
So cot[tex]cot(\frac{\pi}{2})=\frac{1}{tan(\frac{\pi}{2})}[/tex]
= [tex]\frac{1}{(\frac{1}{0})}[/tex]
= 0
Therefore, answer will be option D), 0.
